I’ve been reading about Abraham/Lot as well as Joseph and to be honest I’m a bit confused.
Forgive me if I’ve misquoted or taken anything out of context.
God came to Abraham and said that he was going to destroy Sodom and Gomorrah because of their wickedness. Abraham then starts dealing with God about Him sparing the city if there were righteous people – basically they get down to 10. As we know there weren’t even 10 so Lot and his family escaped by the help of the angel. Fair Do’s
However in the story of Joseph God richly blesses one nation (Egypt) through just one righteous man – Joseph.
The question I’ve been wrestling with is why would God destroy the 2 cities when there was clearly one righteous man – Lot, however he blesses Egypt through just one righteous man. I thought that it maybe down to sin, Soddom and Gomorah’s sin was worse than Egypt’s. (Egypt certainly wasn’t a God fearing nation). But then we know that no one sin is worse than the another sin, is idolatry worse than sexual sin??
Now I know God is God and he can choose what he wants to do and who he wants to bless, I also know that He is not inconsistent but the above is just baking my noodle. Why would God destroy one place and not another based on His own ‘terms of agreement’.
Any help with this would be gratefully received!!!!